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PCA and multimodal analgesia

Regional anesthesia and acute pain·~5 min read· Physician-reviewed✓ Sourced · 2

Stem

A 71-year-old man, 96 kg, with obstructive sleep apnea on home CPAP and an eGFR of 38 mL/min, has just had an elective total hip arthroplasty under spinal anesthesia without intrathecal morphine. He takes no opioids at home. The spinal is regressing in recovery and his pain is 7/10.

Question

What is your postoperative analgesic plan for him?

Ideal answer

HeadlineMultimodal first, then a hydromorphone PCA with no basal rate, monitored for sedation, because sleep apnea and his kidneys make respiratory depression the risk.

  1. Scheduled acetaminophen; no NSAID, because of his kidneys. Regional if it still fits; dexamethasone or a ketamine infusion selectively, by patient and procedure.
  2. Hydromorphone PCA, not morphine, because morphine's active metabolites accumulate in renal impairment:1 0.2 mg demand, 6–15 minute lockout, no basal infusion because he is opioid-naive,1 and an hourly or 4-hour limit.
  3. Sedation scoring plus continuous oximetry or capnography, because sedation usually precedes respiratory depression and is a more reliable warning than respiratory rate.1
  4. His own CPAP whenever he sleeps; naloxone at the bedside, and no benzodiazepines or gabapentinoids alongside the opioid, since each deepens opioid respiratory depression.
  5. Oral opioids as soon as he tolerates intake, as the PCA is for rapid titration.

Breaking down the answer

  • No basal infusion in the opioid-naive — PCA safety rests on the patient falling asleep before pressing again; a basal rate breaks that loop and increases side effects and respiratory depression without improving analgesia.1
  • Basal infusion in the opioid-tolerant — I replace the home opioid as a basal rate or continue it orally, from an equianalgesic conversion reduced by 25–50%, because withdrawal and under-treatment are the bigger risks.1
  • Nobody else presses the button — PCA by proxy defeats the safety mechanism; I educate families and nurses.
  • Ketamine — 0.5 mg/kg at induction and 0.1–0.25 mg/kg/h spare opioid, most in tolerant patients and spine surgery. Outside the OR, boluses above 0.35 mg/kg or infusions above 1 mg/kg/h belong in a monitored setting.2
  • Lidocaine infusion — 1.5 mg/kg bolus and 1–2 mg/kg/h helps after open abdominal surgery and return of bowel function. Changes if: a peripheral nerve or fascial plane block is running; I do not combine them, because of LAST risk.
  • Gabapentinoids selectively — they add sedation and respiratory depression with opioids, especially in the elderly, so I do not use them routinely.
  • The scale I name — the Pasero Opioid-induced Sedation Scale, with continuous monitoring in sleep apnea and the elderly and conservative dosing when there is sleep apnea, renal failure or a benzodiazepine on board.1

Follow-up question

At 3 a.m. the nurse finds him difficult to rouse, with a respiratory rate of 6 and SpO2 84%. His CPAP is still in the bag. What do you do?

Follow-up answer

HeadlineOpioid-induced respiratory depression; I tell the nurse to stimulate him, stop the PCA and call a rapid response.

Oxygen and airway support. Naloxone 40 mcg IV every 2 minutes, titrated to breathing rather than full reversal, to avoid acute pain and pulmonary edema; naloxone is shorter-acting than hydromorphone, so I start an infusion if needed and move him to a monitored bed. Then the contributors: a basal rate programmed in error, PCA by proxy, his renal impairment, benzodiazepines or gabapentin, CPAP not applied. I restart analgesia with multimodal agents, a lower opioid dose and CPAP on, and review the event with the team.

Pitfalls that cost points

  • Listing drugs without a plan or dosing order.
  • Giving naloxone 0.4 mg as a bolus to an opioid-tolerant patient.
  • Using NSAIDs without considering renal function, bleeding and anastomotic risk.

Rapid-fire

Q: Why avoid morphine in renal failure? A: Morphine-6-glucuronide accumulates and causes prolonged sedation and respiratory depression; hydromorphone or fentanyl is preferable.1

Q: Why is sedation a better early warning than respiratory rate? A: Sedation increases before respiratory depression and is detected at the bedside, giving time to intervene.

Q: Why does a lockout of 6–15 minutes make sense? A: It allows the peak effect of each dose before the next can be given; fentanyl suits the shorter end and morphine the longer.1

Q: Why is multimodal analgesia better than more opioid? A: Drugs acting on different pathways are additive, while opioid side effects such as nausea, ileus, sedation and respiratory depression are dose-related.

Numbers to know

Item Value
Hydromorphone PCA 0.2 mg demand, 6–15 min lockout1
Morphine PCA 1 mg demand, 6–15 min lockout1
Naloxone titration 40 mcg IV every 2 min
Ketamine 0.5 mg/kg at induction; 0.1–0.25 mg/kg/h; monitored bed above 0.35 mg/kg bolus or 1 mg/kg/h2
Lidocaine infusion 1.5 mg/kg bolus; 1–2 mg/kg/h
Acetaminophen 1 g every 6 h; max 4 g/day

Sources

  1. 1.Pearls and Pitfalls of Patient-Controlled Analgesia · U.S. Pharmacist, 2017 · uspharmacist.com
  2. 2.Intravenous Ketamine Guidelines for Pain Management · ASRA Pain Medicine, 2018 · asra.comSummary of the 2018 ASRA/AAPM/ASA ketamine consensus guidelines (Schwenk, Reg Anesth Pain Med 2018;43:456-66); the full article could not be opened.

Facts on this page were checked against these sources on Oct 14, 2026. Guidelines change; confirm doses against current institutional protocols.

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